Handwriting of Ordinances

EXAMINING COLOSSIANS 2:14 AND THE USE OF DOGMA

Let us turn BACK to Colossians 2:14 to examine another aspect.

Blotting out^G1813 the^G3588 handwriting^G5498 of ordinances^G1378 that was against^G2596 us,^G2257 which^G3739 was^G2258 contrary^G5227 to us,^G2254 and^G2532 took^G142 it^G846 out of^G1537 the^G3588 way,^G3319 nailing^G4338 it^G846 to his cross;^G4716
(KJV + STRONG’S #S)

Please take special note of the "handwriting of ordinances" these ordinances are reference in Ephesians 2:14 but it indicates that the "law of commandments in ordinances" is abolished. Messiah Himself says that he DID NOT come to abolish the law or the prophets. If we say that what is being abolished here in Ephesians 2:14 or in Colossians 2:14 is the Written Torah or the Prophets we are in direct contradiction against the words of Messiah. So what could this possibly mean? In the Greek text it actually looks like this:

          

εξαλειψας ^{G1813 [G5660] HAVING BLOTTED OUT}   

το ^{G3588 THE}   καθ ^{G2596 AGAINST}  ημων ^{G2257 US}

  χειρογραφον ^{G5498 HANDWRITING}   τοις ^{G3588 IN THE} 

δογμασιν ^{G1378 DECREES,}   ο ^{G3739 WHICH}   

ην ^{G2258 [G5713] WAS}   υπεναντιον ^{G5227 ADVERSE}

 ημιν ^{G2254 TO US,}   και ^{G2532 ALSO}   αυτο ^{G846 IT}   

ηρκεν ^{G142 [G5758] HE HAS TAKEN} εκ ^{G1537 OUT OF}

του ^{G3588 THE}   μεσου ^{G3319 MIDST,}

προσηλωσας ^{G4338 [G5660] HAVING NAILED} αυτο ^{G846 IT}

τω ^{G3588 TO THE}   σταυρω ^{G4716 CROSS;}   

Notice the "handwriting in the decrees." This term used for decrees is G1378 (δογμασιν) dogma pronounced "dog'-mah" From the base of G1380; a law (civil, ceremonial or ecclesiastical): - decree, ordinance. This particular term only appears five (5) times in the text of the New Testament. Since many are asserting this is referring to the Law of Moses let us test that shall we? Please turn with me to the first appearance in the Gospel of Luke 2:1 if you will.

          "And it came to pass in those days that a decree went out from Caesar Augustus that all the 

          world should be registered."

It is clear from the English text and the context of this passage that the "decree" being spoken of is that of man and NOT the Torah of Moses because it specifically identifies Caesar Augustus as being the source of the "decree." Remember this is the EXACT term being asserted is the "law of Moses" in Ephesians 2:14 Turn now with me to Acts 16:4 please:

          "And as they went through the cities, they delivered to them the decrees to keep, which were 

          determined by the Apostles and elders at Jerusalem."

Which decrees were determined by the apostles and elders to be kept? Turn to Acts 15:28

          "For it seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden that these 

          necessary things: that you abstain from things offered to idols, from blood, from things 

          strangled, and from sexual immorality. If you keep yourselves from these you will do well."

The decrees were not the entire Torah of Moses but were decrees determined by the apostles and the elders at Jerusalem NOT the Torah of Moses! Turn with me to Acts 17:7 please.

          "Jason has harbored them and these are all acting contrary to the decrees of Caesar, saying 

          there is another king--Jesus."

Again the term DOGMA is NOT used to mean the Torah of Moses but rather the decrees of men. To be completely fair we should also examine the Septuagint (LXX) to see if the Greek term is ever used to mean the Torah of Moses. Bear in mind that the Greek text of the LXX is the SAME Greek used in the New Testament and it was written hundreds of years before the New Testament. If we examine the LXX what we discover is that this term "dogma" appears ONLY twelve (12) times and ONLY in the book of Daniel. Folks tighten your seat belts because you are in for a shock. 

Please turn to Daniel 2:13 please.

          "So the decree went out and they began killing the wise men; and sought Daniel and his 

          companions, to kill them."

Whose decree was this? None other than King Nebuchadnezzar. It was NOT the Torah of Moses issuing a "decree" or "dogma" to kill Daniel. Turn with me to Daniel 3:10:

          "You, O King, have made a decree that everyone who hears the sound of the horn, flute, harp, 

          lyre, and psaltery, in symphony with all kinds of music shall fall down and worship the gold 

          image and whoever does not fall down and worship shall be cast into the midst of a burning 

          fiery furnace."

Obviously this "decree" is in contradiction to the Torah of Moses (see Exodus 20:4-5; Exodus 34:17; Leviticus 19:4; Leviticus 26:1; Deuteronomy 4:16; Deuteronomy 5:8; Deuteronomy 27:15; 2 Kings 17:12; Psalm 78:58; Psalm 97:7; Psalm 135: 15-18; Isaiah 40: 18-20; Isaiah 42:8, 17; Ezekiel 8:3; and many others. This was a decree of men, NOT the Torah of Moses. Again it was King Nebuchadnezzar's decrees and not the instructions of YHWH which are spoken of.

Turn with me to Daniel 3:29:

          "Therefore I make a decree that any people, nation, or language which speaks anything amiss 

          against the God of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abed-Nego shall be cut in pieces, and their houses 

          shall be made an ash heap; because there is no other God who can deliver like this."

As awesome as this is a testament to the deliverance of the three young saints it nevertheless is a decree from a man, again the King known as Nebuchadnezzar. Turn with me to Daniel 4:6:

  

          "Therefore I issued a decree to bring in all the wise men of Babylon before me, that they

          might make known to me the interpretation of the dream."

Again another decree of men issued by King Nebuchadnezzar. Are you seeing a pattern emerge here? I tell you the truth "dogma" are the decrees of men, NOT the Torah of Moses or the instructions of YHWH. Turn with me to Daniel 6:8-10:

          "Now O king establish the decree and sign the writing, so that it cannot be changed, according 

          to the law of the Medes and Persians, which does not alter."  Therefore King Darius signed the 

          written decree. Now when Daniel knew that the writing was signed, he went home. And in

          his upper room with his windows open toward Jerusalem he knelt down on his knees 

          three times that day and prayed and gave thanks before His God, as was his custom since early 

          days."

At the risk of sounding like a broken record I'll say it again, the decree was of a man, and in this case it was King Darius, NOT the Torah of Moses or instructions of YHWH. Turn to Daniel 6:12:

          "And they went before the king, and spoke concerning the king's decree: "Have you not signed 

          a decree that every man who petitions any god or man within thirty days, except you, O King, 

          shall be cast into the den of lions?" The king answered and said, "The thing is true, according 

          to the law of the Medes and Persians, which does not alter."

Notice that I highlighted the term "law" referring to the law of the Medes and Persians. This term is "dogma" the same term we have been examining. Now we have a Biblical reference where this term is rendered "law" and speaks NOT of the Torah of Moses but of the "dogma" of men. In this case pagans who were the Medes and Persians who also were responsible for the oppression of the Israelites.  Please turn to Daniel 6:15:

          "Then these men approached the king, and said to the king, 'Know O king, that it is the law of 

          the Medes and Persians that no decree or statute which the king establishes may be changed.'"

In the above passage we find that "dogma" is not rendered decree but rather "law" giving us again a Biblical reference for the term referring to law or laws(s) which are NOT the Torah of Moses or the instructions of YHWH. The term for decree in this passage is a Greek word meaning "enactment" as in Daniel 6:12. Now turn with me to Daniel 6:26 please.

          "I make a decree that in every dominion of my kingdom men must tremble and fear before the 

          God of Daniel."

Finally we find that the term dogma is rendered as "decree" and again it refers not to the Torah of Moses or the instructions of YHWH but the decrees of men in this case. As you can see a Biblical examination of the appearance and usage of the term "dogma" does NOT support the supposition that what Messiah was wiping away was the Torah of Moses; nor does it support the supposition that Messiah "nailed it to the cross." What was taken out of the way, or wiped out MUST be something else besides the Torah of Moses or the instructions of YHWH. 

For the Christian who was taught that it WAS the Torah of Moses it leaves them in a sense of discomfort and might cause them to question their faith. The Adversary hopes this will lead some to walk away from Christianity when they discover the truth. On the other hand the Holy Spirit desires you and I to understand the truth, and to draw that much closer to Messiah not walk away.

In recap what we have discovered is that the term "decree" does NOT refer to the Torah of Moses, or to the instructions of YHWH. Additionally we have two references in the TaNaK that indicate that the term "dogma" which isn't referring to the Torah of Moses or the instructions of YHWH can be rendered "law" in both Testaments. 

This leaves us needing to examine the sister passage in Ephesians 2:13-14.